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August 2024

Question Title

* A risk factor for the development of acquired cystic kidney disease (ACKD) is

The correct answer is a. dialysis vintage.

Rationale: Acquired cystic kidney disease (ACKD) refers to the sporadic development of kidney cysts in patients with chronic kidney disease or ESKD. The prevalence of ACKD is around 7% in the predialysis population. It increases with time on dialysis and has been reported to go from 10% to 20% after one to three years of dialysis to more than 90% after five to ten years of dialysis.

Reference: Gilbert, S.J., et al. (2023), NKF Primer on Kidney Diseases, 8th ed., pages 57 and 385; Counts, C.S. (Ed.) (2020). Core Curriculum for Nephrology Nursing, 7th ed., page 169.
March 2024

Question Title

* When examining a patient who has autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), the NP should be aware of common extrarenal findings, which include

The correct answer is b. liver enlargement.

Rationale: Liver cysts, which cause liver enlargement, are the most common extrarenal finding in ADPKD, occurring in more than 80% of patients by the age of 30. Although these cysts generally remain asymptomatic, liver enlargement can compress surrounding organs, causing symptoms including shortness of breath, pain, easy satiety, and gastroesophageal reflux.

Reference: Gilbert, S.J., et al. (Eds.) (2023). NKF Primer on Kidney Diseases, 8th ed., pages 378-379.
October 2023

Question Title

* A 45-year-old patient is newly diagnosed with CKD Stage 5. Which of the following vaccines should the patient receive at this time?

The correct answer is c. PCV20 pneumococcal vaccine.

Rationale: Pneumococcal vaccine is recommended for immunocompromised adults at risk of pneumococcal disease or its complications, e.g., people with CKD Stage 5. HPV vaccine is indicated for persons through age 26. Polio vaccine is not necessary for adults residing in the US. Live attenuated influenza vaccine is contraindicated in immunocompromised persons.

References: Bodin, S. (2022). Contemporary Nephrology Nursing, 4th ed., page 740; CDC Recommended Adult Immunization Schedule, 2023. 
May 2023

Question Title

* A patient on hemodialysis is being referred to a pain management clinic. The NP is aware that the medication with the highest likelihood of toxicity for this patient is

The correct answer is d. morphine.

Rationale:  Morphine should be avoided for patients who have advanced CKD.  In patients who have a glomerular filtration rate < 30 mL/min/1.73 m2, metabolites of morphine that are normally excreted by the kidneys accumulate rapidly and can cause life-threatening respiratory depression.   

Reference: Counts, C.S. (Ed.) ANNA Core Curriculum for Nephrology Nursing, 7th ed., page 861, Figure 20-3.
December 2022

Question Title

* A 75-year-old patient on maintenance hemodialysis frequently experiences intradialytic hypotension.  To maintain the patient’s blood pressure during a hemodialysis treatment, the NP initially should order midodrine hydrochloride (ProAmatine) to be taken

The correct answer is b. predialysis.

Rationale: Midodrine, an oral α-adrenergic agonist, reduces the frequency of intradialytic hypotension. It is administered prior to the dialysis treatment.

Reference: Counts, C. S.  (Ed.)  ANNA Core Curriculum for Nephrology Nursing, 7th ed, page 1290.

 
July 2022

Question Title

* An NP prescribes minoxidil (Loniten) for a patient who has CKD.  The patient should be monitored for

The correct answer is a. pericardial effusion.

Rationale:  Minoxidil may produce serious adverse effects. It can cause pericardial effusion that may progress to tamponade, and angina pectoris may be exacerbated. Patients with kidney impairment who are not on dialysis may be at higher risk. Therefore, CKD patients receiving minoxidil must be closely supervised.

Reference: Counts, C. (Ed.) ANNA Core Curriculum for Nephrology Nursing, 7th ed., page 477; Pfizer, Minoxidil package insert - Note boxed warning.
February 2022

Question Title

* An 8-year-old child diagnosed with renal dysplasia is preparing to start hemodialysis.  The NP understands that the best time to begin education regarding transitioning to adult care is when the child

The correct answer is c. is 10-14 years of age.

Rationale: The formal transition process from child to adult care should begin between the ages of 10-14 and should be individualized according to the child’s neurocognitive and developmental status.

Reference: Counts, C. (Ed.) ANNA Core Curriculum for Nephrology Nursing, 7th ed., page 747.
September 2021

Question Title

* A patient with secondary hyperparathyroidism (SHPT) is on maintenance hemodialysis. Despite increasing doses of cinacalcet (Sensipar), the patient’s PTH level has not decreased/improved.  The NP prescribes etelcalcetide (Parsabiv) in place of Sensipar.  The recommended starting dose of Parsabiv is

The correct answer is b. 5 mg.

Rationale:  Etelcalcetide (Parsabiv) is indicated for the treatment of secondary hyperparathyroidism (SHPT) in ESRD patients on hemodialysis. It is most often prescribed for those patients who fail to respond sufficiently to cinacalcet. The initial recommended dose is 5 mg IV bolus three times per week at the end of the treatment.

Reference:  Quarles, L.D. & Berkoben, M. Management of secondary hyperparathyroidism in adult hemodialysis patients. UpToDate. Last updated: March 15,2021
 
April 2021

Question Title

* According the KDOQI Guidelines for pediatric vascular access, which characteristic indicates a patient should be referred for permanent vascular access placement?

The correct answer is a. Weight of 25 kg (55 lb).

Rationale: Serious consideration should be given to placing permanent vascular access in children greater than 20 kg who are expected to wait more than 1 year for a kidney transplant. A central venous catheter may be acceptable for patients bridging on hemodialysis awaiting transition to peritoneal dialysis.

Reference: ANNA Core Curriculum for Nephrology Nursing, 7th ed., page 1473
November 2020

Question Title

* During rounds in an in-center hemodialysis facility, the NP notes that a patient is prescribed pregabalin (Lyrica) 75 mg BID for neuropathic pain.  Which of these actions should the NP take?

The correct answer is a. decrease the dose.

Rationale: Pregabalin is primarily excreted by the kidney and requires dosage adjustment in patients with kidney disease. It is also removed by conventional dialysis, and a supplemental dose is required post-hemodialysis. Both the prescribed Lyrica dose and the supplemental dose are too high for a patient with ESRD on hemodialysis.

Reference: Lexicomp, Drug Information Handbook for Advanced Practice Nursing, 17th ed., page 1862 - for eGFR < 15 mL/min - single daily dose of 25-75 mg; Post-hemodialysis supplemental dosage as a single supplemental dose based on usual daily dose, e.g., “25 mg/day schedule: Single supplementary dose of 25 mg or 50 mg.”

 
June 2020

Question Title

* The NP is teaching a patient who is in peritoneal dialysis (PD) training about the need for routine dialysis adequacy testing.  The NP should explain that the most common reason for a reduction in PD adequacy is

 

The correct answer b. decreasing residual kidney function.

Rationale: Residual kidney function can account for approximately 50% of the clearance of salt, water, small and medium size solutes in new-start patients on PD.  As residual kidney function decreases, so does adequacy.

Reference: References: Daugirdas, J. T., et al. (2015). Handbook of Dialysis, 5th ed., pp. 406, 468, 471, & 476; Gilbert. S.J., & Weiner, D.E. (Eds.). (2018). NKF Primer on Kidney Diseases, 7th ed., pp. 546, 550.
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